# How to Prove It - Solutions

## Chapter - 5, Functions

### Summary

• Suppose $f : A \to B$. We will say that $f$ is one-to-one if:
$\lnot \exists a_1 \in A \exists a_2 \in A(f(a_1)= f(a_2) \land a_1 \ne a_2)$.
We say that $f$ is onto if:
$\forall b \in B \exists a \in A(f(a) = b)$.
One-to-one functions are sometimes also called injections, and onto functions are sometimes called surjections.
• Suppose $f : A \to B$. Then:
• $f$ is one-to-one iff $\forall a_1 \in A \forall a_2 \in A(f(a_1) = f(a_2) \to a_1 = a_2)$. Note that this statement is the positive form of the statement given above for one-to-one.
As can be seen here, this statement is easier to prove that a function is one-to-one. We select two values $a_1, a_2 \in A$ such that $f(a_1) = f(a_2)$. Now by doing so if we can conclude that $a_1 = a_2$ then function is one-to-one.
• $f$ is onto iff $Ran(f) = B$.
• Suppose $f: A \to B$ and $g: B \to C$. Then as we know by the definition of composition of functions: $g \circ f : A \to C$.
• If $f$ and $g$ are both one-to-one,then so is $g \circ f$.
• If $f$ and $g$ are both onto, then so is $g \circ f$.
• If a function is one-to-one and onto, the function is sometimes called bijective.

Soln1

(a) One-to-One: False, Onto: True

(b) It is not a function, so question is not applicable.

(c) One-to-One: True, Onto: False

Soln2

(a) It is not a function, so question is not applicable.

(b) $f$ is not a function. $g$: One-to-One: False, as $(ball,b),(bat,b) \in g$. Onto: True.

(c) One-to-One: True, Onto: True

Soln3

(a) One-to-One: False, Onto: True

(b)

For $x = 2, f(x) = 0$, Also for $x = 0, f(x) = 0$. Thus for two values, there is only one image in the range. Thus function is not one-to-one.

It is not onto. To prove it lets suppose $f$ is onto. Thus for $a \in \mathbb R$, there must exist some $x \in \mathbb R$ such that $f(x) = a$. Thus $x^2 - 2x = a$.
$\Rightarrow x^2 - 2x + 1 = a + 1$.
$\Rightarrow (x-1)^2 = a + 1$.
$\Rightarrow x = \sqrt {a + 1} + 1$.

Now, clearly we can see that if $a < 1$, $x \notin \mathbb R$. Thus $f$ is not onto.

(c)

One-to-one: False, because $f(3.2) = f(3.3)$.

Onto: True, For every $c \in \mathbb R$, for $x = \left \lfloor c \right \rfloor$, $f(x) = c$.

Soln4

(a) One-to-one: True. Onto: False as there are many cities which are not capital of any country.

(b) One-to-one: True, Onto: True.

(c) One-to-one: True, Onto: False because for $y = (0.7,0.7)$, there is not value of $x$ such that $f(x) = (0.7,0.7)$.

Soln5

(a)

One-to-one:

Suppose $x_1, x_2 \in A$ such that $f(x_1) = f(x_2)$. Thus we have:

$\Rightarrow \frac {x_1 + 1} {x_1 - 1} = \frac {x_2 + 1} {x_2 - 1}$.
$\Rightarrow (x_1 + 1)(x_2 - 1) = (x_2 + 1)(x_1 - 1)$.
$\Rightarrow x_1x_2 - x_1 + x_2 - 1 = x_1 x_2 - x_2 + x_1 -1$.
$\Rightarrow - x_1 + x_2 = - x_2 + x_1$.
$\Rightarrow 2x_2 = 2x_1$.
$\Rightarrow x_2 = x_1$.

Thus, if $f(x_1) = f(x_2)$, then $x_1 = x_ 2$. Since $x_1, x_2$ are arbitrary, it follows that $f$ is one-to-one.

Onto:

Suppose $y \in A$ is an arbitrary number such that $f(x) = y$. Thus we have:

$\Rightarrow y = \frac {x + 1} {x - 1}$.
$\Rightarrow y(x - 1) = (x + 1)$.
$\Rightarrow yx - y = x + 1$.
$\Rightarrow yx - x = y + 1$.
$\Rightarrow x(y - 1) = y + 1$.
$\Rightarrow x = \frac {y + 1} {y - 1}$.

Since $y \in A$ and $x = \frac {y + 1} {y - 1}$, it follows that $x \in A$. Since $y$ is arbitrary, it follows that for every $y \in A$, there exists an $x = \frac {y + 1} {y - 1}$ such that $f(x) = y$. Thus $f$ is onto.

(b)

$f \circ f (x) = f(f(x)) = f(\frac {x + 1} {x - 1}) = \frac {\frac {x+1} {x-1} + 1} {\frac {x+1} {x-1} - 1}$.
$f \circ f (x) = \frac {\frac {x+1 + (x-1)} {x-1}} {\frac {x+1 - (x -1)} {x-1}}$.
$f \circ f (x) = \frac {\frac {2x} {x-1}} {\frac {2} {x-1}}$.
$f \circ f (x) = \frac {2x} {x-1} \times \frac {x-1} {2}$.
$f \circ f (x) = x$.

Thus $f \circ f = i_A$.

Soln6

(a) $f(2) = \{y \in \mathbb R \, \vert \, - \sqrt 2 < y < \sqrt 2 \}$.

(b) $f$ is not one-to-one because $f(-1) = f(-2) = \phi$. $f$ is onto because for any set $y = \{ q \in R \}$, if $x = 1 + {(\text{largest element of y})}^2$, then $(x,y) \in f$.

Update:

Part(b) of this answer is wrong regarding the onto part(for one-to-one it is correct). Please check here.

I define $x = 1 + {(\text{largest element of y})}^2$ By this definition not every pair of $(x,y)$ belongs to $f$ or for same $x$ there can be multiple $y$.

Now the correct answer(from stackoverflow) answer is, if $x > 0$ then $f(x) = (- \sqrt x, \sqrt x )$. Clearly there are many sets which do not fall in this category for eg: $(5, 23) \notin f$.

Soln7

(a) $f(\{\{1,2\},\{3,4\}\}) = \{1,2,3,4\}$.

(b) It is not one-to-one since $f(\{\{1,2\},\{3,4\}\}) = f(\{\{1,3\},\{2,4\}\})$. However it is onto.

Soln8

(a)

Suppose $g \circ f: A \to C$ is onto. Suppose $c \in C$ is any arbitrary number. Since $g \circ f$ is onto, it follows that there must exist an element $a \in A$ such that $a = g \circ f(c)$. Thus $g(f(a)) = c$. Since $c$ is arbitrary, it follows that for every element $c \in C$, there exist an element $b = f(a)$ such that $g(b) = c$. Thus $g$ is onto.

(b)

Suppose $g \circ f: A \to C$ is one-to-one. Suppose $a_1, a_2 \in A$ such that $f(a_1) = f(a_2)$. Since $g$ is a function, it follows that $g(f (x_1)) = g(f(x_2))$. It follows that $g \circ f(x_1) = g \circ f (x_2)$. Since $g \circ f$ is a one-to-one, it follows that $x_1 = x_2$. Thus if $f(x_1) = f(x_2)$, then $x_1 = x_2$. Since $x_1, x_2$ are arbitrary, it follows that $f$ is one-to-one.

Soln9

(a)

Since $g$ is not one-to-one, suppose $b_1,b_2 \in B$ such that $g(b_1) = g(b_2)$. Since $f$ is onto, it follows that there exist some $a_1, a_2 \in A$ such that $f(a_1) = b_1$ and $f(a_2) = b_2$. Thus we have $g(f(a_1)) = g(f(a_2))$, or $g \circ f(a_1) = g \circ f(a_2)$. Thus $g \circ f$ is not one-to-one.

(b)

Since $f$ is not onto, suppose $b \in B$ such that $\forall a \in A (f(a) \ne b )$. Since $g$ is a function from $B$ to $C$, it follows that for some $c \in C$, $c = g(b)$. We shall prove by contradiction. Thus suppose $g \circ f$ is onto. Thus for some $a \in A$, $g \circ f (a) = c$. Thus $g(f(a)) = c$. Since $g(b) = c$, and $g$ is one-to-one, it follows $f(a) = b$. But it contradicts that $\forall a \in A (f(a) \ne b )$. Thus $g \circ f$ is not onto.

Soln10

(a)

Suppose $f$ is one-to-one. Suppose $c_1, c_2 \in C$ such that $f \upharpoonleft C (c_1) = f \upharpoonleft C (c_2)$. Thus there exist an element $b \in B$ such that $(c_1,b) \in f \land (c_1,b) \in B \times C$ and $(c_2,b) \in f \land (c_2,b) \in B \times C$. Since $f$ is one-to-one and $(c_1,b) \in f \land (c_2,b) \in f$, it follows that $c_1 = c_2$. Thus if $f \upharpoonleft C (c_1) = f \upharpoonleft C (c_2)$, then $c_1 = c_2$. Since $c_1, c_2$ are arbitrary, it follows that $f \upharpoonleft C$ is one-to-one.

(b)

Suppose $f \upharpoonleft C$ is onto. Suppose $b \in B$ is an arbitrary element. Since $f \upharpoonleft C$ is onto, there must exist some element $c \in C$ such that $f \upharpoonleft C(c) = b$. It follows that $(c,b) \in f$. Since $c \in C$, and $C \subseteq A$, it follows $c \in A$. Since $b$ is arbitrary, it follows that for every $b \in B$, there exist some $c \in A$. Thus $f$ is onto.

(c)

Converse of (a) is: if $f \upharpoonleft C$ is one-to-one, then $f$ is one-to-one.

Suppose $A = \{1,2,3\}, B = \{a,b\}, C = \{1,2\}, f \upharpoonleft C = \{ (1,a), (2,b) \} , f = \{ (1,a), (2,b), (3,a) \}$.

Clearly, $f \upharpoonleft C$ is one-to-one but $f$ is not one-to-one.

Converse of (b) is: if $f$ is onto, then $f \upharpoonleft C$ is onto.

Suppose $A = \{1,2\}, B = \{a,b\}, C = \{2\}, f = \{ (1,a), (2,b) \}, f \upharpoonleft C = \{ (2,b) \}$.

Clearly, $f$ is onto but $f \upharpoonleft C$ is not onto.

Soln11

(a)

Suppose $A$ contains more than one elements and suppose $a_1, a_2 \in A$. Thus $f(a_1) = f(a_2) = b$. Thus $f$ is not one-to-one.

(b)

Suppose $B$ contains more than one elements and suppose $b_1 \in B$ and $b \ne b_1$. Thus there exist an element $b_1 \in B$ such that it is not the image of any element in $A$. Thus $f$ is onto.

Soln12

($\to$)Suppose $f \cup g$ is one-to-one. We will prove by contradiction that $Ran(f) \cap Ran(g) = \phi$. Suppose $Ran(f) \cap Ran(g) \ne \phi$. Thus there exist atleast one element $x$ such that $x \in Ran(f)$ and $x \in Ran(g)$. Since $x \in Ran(f)$, thus there exist an element $a \in A$ such that $(a,x) \in f$. Similarly since $x \in g$, there exist an element $b \in B$ such that $(b,x) \in g$. Since $(a,x) \in f$, and $f \cup g$ is a function, it follows $(a,x) \in f \cup g$. Similarly $(b,x) \in f \cup g$. Since $f \cup g$ is a one-to-one function, it follows that $a = b$. But since $A$ and $B$ are disjoint, it is a contradiction. Thus $Ran(f) \cap Ran(g) = \phi$.

($\leftarrow$)We shall prove this by contra-positive. Suppose $Ran(f) \cap Ran(g) \ne \phi$. Thus we can suppose an element $x \in Ran(f) \cap Ran(g)$. Since $x \in Ran(f)$, there must exist an element $a \in A$ such that $(a,x) \in f$. Similarly since $x \in Ran(g)$, there must exist an element $b \in B$ such that $(b,x) \in g$. Since $A \cap B = \phi$, it follows that $a \ne b$. Since $(a,x) \in f$, $(a,x) \in f \cup g$. Since $(b,x) \in g$, $(b,x) \in f \cup g$. Since $(a,x) \in f \cup g$ and $(b,x) \in f \cup g$ and $a \ne b$, it follows that $f \cup g$ is not one-to-one. Thus if $Ran(f) \cap Ran(g) = \phi$, then $f \cup g$ is one-to-one.

Soln13

To prove $R : A \to B$, we need to prove two things:

• $\forall a \in A \exists b \in B((a,b) \in R)$.
• if $(a,b_1) \in R$ and $(a,b_2) \in R$, then $b_1 = b_2$.

Proof for: $\forall a \in A \exists b \in B((a,b) \in R)$.

Suppose $a \in A$. Since $S \circ R$ is a function from $A$ to $C$, there must exist an element $c \in C$ such that $(a,c) \in S \circ R$. Since $(a,c) \in S \circ R$, it follows that there exist an element $b \in B$ such that $(a,b) \in R$ and $(b,c) \in S$. Thus if $a \in A$ then there exist an element $b \in B$ such that $(a,b) \in R$. Thus $\forall a \in A \exists b \in B((a,b) \in R)$.

Proof for: if $(a,b_1) \in R$ and $(a,b_2) \in R$, then $b_1 = b_2$.

Suppose $a \in A$ and $b_1, b_2 \in B$ such that $(a,b_1) \in R$ and $(a,b_2) \in R$. Since $S$ is a function, there exist $c_1, c_2 \in C$ such that $(b_1,c_1) \in S$ and $(b_2,c_2) \in S$. Since $(a,b_1) \in R$ and $(b_1,c_1) \in S$, it follows $(a,c_1) \in S \circ R$. Similarly since $(a,b_2) \in R$ and $(b_2,c_2) \in S$, it follows $(a,c_2) \in S \circ R$. Since $S \circ R$ is a function, it follows that $c_1 = c_2$. Since $(b_1,c_1) \in S$ and $(b_2,c_2) \in S$ and $c_1 = c_2$ and $S$ is a one-to-one function, it follows that $b_1 = b_2$. Thus if $(a,b_1) \in R$ and $(a,b_2) \in R$, then $b_1 = b_2$.

Thus $R$ is a function from $A$ to $B$.

Soln14

(a)

Suppose $R$ is reflexive and $f$ is onto. Suppose $x$ is an arbitrary element in $B$. Since $f$ is onto function on $A \to B$, there exist an element $u \in A$ such that $f(u) = x$. Since $R$ is reflexive and $u \in A$, it follows that $(u,u) \in R$. Thus $f(u) = x \land f(u) = x \land (u,u) \in R$. Thus $(x,x) \in S$. Since $x$ is arbitrary, it follows that $S$ is reflexive.

(b)

Suppose $R$ is transitive and $f$ is one-to-one. Suppose $(x,y) \in S$ and $(y,z) \in S$. Thus $(u,v_1) \in R$ and $(v_2,w) \in R$ such that $f(u) = x$ and $f(v_1) = y$ and $f(v_2) = y$ and $f(w) = z$. Since $f$ is one-to-one, it follows that $v_1 = v_2$ or lets say $v = v_1 = v_2$. Thus $(u,v) \in R$ and $(v,w) \in R$. Since $R$ is transitive, it follows $(u,w) \in R$. Since $f(u) = x$ and $f(w) = z$ and $(u,w) \in R$, it follows that $(x,z) \in S$. Thus $S$ is transitive.

Soln15

(a)

Suppose $[x]_R \in A/R$. Since $R$ is an equivalence relation, we know that $[x]_R$ is an equivalence class with respect to $R$. Thus by definition of equivalence class as $[x]_R$ is an equivalence class, it follows $x \in A$. Thus for every element $[x]_R \in A/R$, $x \in A$. Thus $g$ is onto.

(b)

($\to$) Suppose $g$ is one-to-one.

Since $R$ is equivalence relation, it follows that $i_A \subseteq R$.

Now to prove $R \subseteq i_A$. Suppose $(x,y) \in R$. Since $R$ is equivalence relation, $[x]_R = [y]_R$. Also since $g$ is a function on $A \to A/R$, it follows $(x,[x]_R) \in g$ and $(y,[y]_R) \in g$. Since $[x]_R = [y]_R$, and since $g$ is one-to-one, it follows $x = y$. Thus $(x,y) \in i_A$. Since $(x,y)$ is arbitrary, it follows that $R \subseteq i_A$.

Since $i_A \subseteq R$ and $R \subseteq i_A$, it follows $R = i_A$.

($\leftarrow$) Suppose $R = i_A$. Suppose $(x,X) \in g$ and suppose $(y,X) \in g$. Since $X$ is an equivalence class and $g(x) = [x]_R$, it follows that $X = [x]_R$. Similarly $X = [y]_R$. Thus $x \in X$ and $y \in X$. Since $X$ is equivalence class, it follows $xRy$. Now since $R = i_A$, it follows that $x = y$. Thus $g$ is one-to-one.

Soln16

($\to$)Suppose $h$ is one-to-one. Suppose $x,y \in A$ such that $f(x) = f(y)$. Since $x \in A$, then by the definition of $h$, $h([x]_R) = f(x)$. Similarly $h([y]_R) = f(y)$. Since $h$ is one-to-one and $f(x) = f(y)$, it follows that $[x]_R = [y]_R$. Thus $x \in [y]_R$, or $xRy$. Since $x,y$ are arbitrary, it follows that $\forall x \in A \forall y \in A (f(x) = f(y) \to xRy)$.

($\leftarrow$)Suppose $\forall x \in A \forall y \in A (f(x) = f(y) \to xRy)$. Suppose $[x]_R, [y]_R \in A/R$ such that $h([x]_R) = h([y]_R)$. Since $h([x]_R) = f(x)$ and $h([y]_R) = f(y)$, it follows that $f(x) = f(y)$. Since $\forall x \in A \forall y \in A (f(x) = f(y) \to xRy)$, it follows that $xRy$. Since $R$ is an equivalence relation and $xRy$, it follows that $[x]_R = [y]_R$. Thus $h$$is one-to-one. Soln17 (a) ($\to$)Suppose$(b,c) \in g$. Since$f$is onto, there exist an element$a \in A$such that$(a,b) \in f$. Since$(a,b) \in f \land (b,c) \in g$, it follows that$(a,c) \in g \circ f$. Since$g \circ f = h \circ f$, it follows$(a,c) \in h \circ f$. Thus there exist an element$b' \in B$such that$(a,b') \in f$and$(b',c) \in h$. Since$f$is a function,$f(a)$is a unique element, it follows that$b' = b$. Thus$(b,c) \in h$. Thus$g \subseteq h$. ($\leftarrow$)Suppose$(b,c) \in h$. Since$f$is onto, there exist an element$a \in A$such that$(a,b) \in f$. Since$(a,b) \in f \land (b,c) \in h$, it follows that$(a,c) \in h \circ f$. Since$g \circ f = h \circ f$, it follows$(a,c) \in g \circ f$. Thus there exist an element$b' \in B$such that$(a,b') \in f$and$(b',c) \in g$. Since$f$is a function,$f(a)$is a unique element, it follows that$b' = b$. Thus$(b,c) \in g$. Thus$h \subseteq g$. Since$g \subseteq h$and$h \subseteq g$, it follows that$g = f$. (b) I was not able to do it. Using the solution directly from the book. Suppose$c_1, c_2 \in C$such that$c_1 \ne c_2$. Suppose$b ∈ B$. Suppose$g$and$h$are functions from$B \to C$such that$\forall x \in B(g(x) = c_1)$,$\forall x \in B \setminus \{b\}(h(x) = c_1)$, and$h(b) = c_2$. Then$g \ne h$, so by assumption(by contrapositive)$g \circ f \ne h \circ f$, and therefore we can choose some$a \in A$such that$g(f(a)) \ne h(f(a))$. But by the way$g$and$h$were defined, the only$x \in B$for which$g(x) \ne h(x)$is$x = b$, so it follows that$f(a) = b$. Since$b$was arbitrary, it follows that$f$is onto. Soln18 (a) Suppose$a \in A$and$b \in B$such that$(a,b) \in g$. Since$f$is a function frm$B$to$C$and$b \in B$, there exist an element say$c \in C$such that$(b,c) \in f$. Since$(a,b) \in g$and$(b,c) \in f$, it follows that$(a,c) \in f \circ g$. Since$f \circ g = f \circ h$, it follows$(a,c) \in f \circ h$. Thus there exist element$b' \in B$such that$(a,b') \in h$and$(b',c) \in f$. Since$(b',c) \in f$and$(b,c) \in f$and$f$is one-to-one, it follows that$b' = b$. Sicne$b = b'$and$(a,b') \in h$, it follows$(a,b) \in h$. Since$(a,b)$is arbitrary, it follows that$g \subseteq f$. Similarly it can be seen that$f \subseteq g$. Thus we have$f \subseteq g$and$g \subseteq f$, it follows that$f = g$. (b) Suppose$b_1, b_2 \in B$such that$f(b_1) = f(b_2)$. Suppose$g$and$h$are functions from$A \to B$such that$\forall x \in A(g(x) = b_1)$,$\forall x \in A(h(x) = b_2)$. Thus$f \circ g (x) = f(g(x)) = f(b_1) = f(b_2) = f(h(x)) = f \circ h(x)$. Since it is given that if$f \circ g = g \circ f$, then$g = h$, it follows that$g(x) = h(x)$. Thus$b_1 = b_2$. Thus$f$is one-to-one. Soln19 (a) Proof for$hRf$: Suppose$t(x) = x^2 - 2x + 2$is a function on$\mathbb R \to \mathbb R$. Thus$t \circ f(x) = t(f(x)) = (x^2 + 1)^2 - 2(x^2 + 1) + 2$. Thus we have$t \circ f(x) = x^4 + 1 + 2x^2 - 2x^2 - 2 + 2 = x^4 + 1 = h(x)$. Thus there exist a function$t(x) = x^2 - 2x + 2$such that$h = t \circ f$. Thus$hRf$. Proof for$\lnot gRf$: We can prove this by contradiction. Suppose that$t(x): \mathbb R \to \mathbb R$such that$t \circ f = g$. Thus$t(f(x)) = g(x)$. Thus for$x = x_0 = -1$,$g(x_0) = 0$. Since$g(x) = t(f(x))$, it follows that$f(x) = x_0 = -1$. Since$f(x) = x^2 + 1$, it follows that$\forall x \in \mathbb R(f(x) \ge 1)$. Thus there is no value of$x \in \mathbb R$such that$f(x) = -1$. Thus$t(f(x)) \ne g(x)$at$x = x_0 = -1$. This contradicts that$t \circ f$is a function on$\mathbb R \to \mathbb R$. Thus$(g,f) \notin R$. (b) A relation is preorder if it is reflexive and transitive. Proof of$R$is reflexive: Suppose$f \in \mathcal F$. Consider$i_{\mathbb R} \circ f(x) = i_{\mathbb R}(f(x)) = f(x)$. Thus there exist a function$i_{\mathbb R}$such that$i_{\mathbb R} \circ f = f$. Thus$(f,f) \in R$. Since$f$is arbitrary, it follows that$R$is reflexive. Proof of$R$is transitive: Suppose$f,g,h \in \mathcal F$such that$fRg$and$gRh$. Since$fRg$, there exist a function$s$such that that$f = s \circ g$. Similarly since$gRh$, it follows that for there exist a function$t$such that$t \circ h = g$. Thus$f(x) = s(g(x)) = s(t \circ h(x)) = s(t(h(x)))$. Thus$f(x) = s(t(h(x))) = s \circ t(h(x)) = k(h(x))$, where$k = s \circ t$. Thus there exist a function$k$such that$k \circ h = f$. Thus$(f,h) \in R$. Since$f,g,h$are arbitrary, it follows that$R$is transitive. Since$R$is reflexive and transitive, it follows that$R$is pre-order. (c) Suppose$f \in \mathcal F$. Consider$f \circ i_{\mathbb R}(x) = f (i_{\mathbb R}(x)) = f(x)$. Thus there exist a function$f = f$such that$f \circ i_{\mathbb R} = f$. Thus$(f,i_{\mathbb R}) \in R$. (d) ($\to$) Suppose$i_{\mathbb R}Rf$. Suppose$x_1, x_2 \in \mathbb R$such that$f(x_1) = f(x_2)$. Since$i_{\mathbb R}Rf$, there exist a function$t : \mathbb R \to \mathbb R$such that$t \circ f = i_{\mathbb R}$. Thus$t \circ f(x_1) = t(f(x_1)) = t(f(x_2)) = t \circ f(x_2)$. Since$t \circ f = i_{\mathbb R}$, it follows that$t \circ f(x_1) = x_1$and$t \circ f(x_2) = x_2$. Since$t \circ f(x_1) = t \circ f(x_2)$, it follows that$x_1 = x_2$. Since$x_1, x_2$are arbitrary, it follows that$f$is one-to-one. ($\leftarrow$) Suppose$f$is one-to-one. Suppose$h = f^{-1} \cup \{ R \setminus A \times \{0\} \}$where$A = Ran(f)$. Now we will first prove that$h$is a function. To prove$h$is a function, we need to prove existence and uniqueness. Suppose$x \in R$. Thus we have two possible cases: • Case 1:$x \in A$. Thus$x \in Ran(f)$. It follows there exist an element$y \in \mathbb R$such that$(y,x) \in f$. Thus$(x,y) \in f^{-1}$. Also since$f$is one-to-one, thus$x$is an image of only one element$y$in$f$. Thus for$x$there is a unique element$y$in$f^{-1}$. Thus$h(x)$exists as well as if$x \in A$then there is only one element(unique)$y$such that$h(x) = y$. • Case 2:$x \notin A$. Thus$x \in \mathbb R \setminus A$. Thus$h(x) = 0$. Thus there is a unique value$0$for every$x \in \mathbb R \setminus A$. Thus for$x \notin A$,$h(x)$exists and there is only one value(unique)$0$such that$h(x) = 0$. Thus$h$is a function on$\mathbb R \to \mathbb R$. Now suppose$x \in \mathbb R$and$h \circ f(x) = h(f(x))$. Since$f(x) \in Ran(R)$, then by definition of$h$,$h(f(x)) = x$. Thus$h \circ f = i_{\mathbb R}$. Thus there exist a function$h$such that$h \circ f = i_{\mathbb R}$. Thus$i_{\mathbb R}Rf$. (e) Suppose$f \in \mathcal F$. We have$g \circ f(x) = g(f(x))$. Since$f$is a function from$\mathbb R$to$\mathbb R$, it follows that$f(x) \in \mathbb R$. Since$\forall x \in \mathbb R(g(x) = c)$and$f(x) \in \mathbb R$, it follows that$g(f(x)) = c$. Since$g(x) = c$, it follows$g \circ f = g$. Thus$(g,f) \in R$. (f) ($\to$) Suppose$fRg$. Thus there exist a function$h$such that$h \circ g = f$. Thus$h(g(x)) = f(x)$. Since$g(x) = c$, it follows that$f(x) = h(c)$. Since$h(c)$is a constant, thus$f(x) = h(c)$is also a constant. Thus$f$is a contant function. ($\leftarrow$) Suppose$f$is a constant function such that$\forall x \in \mathbb R(f(x) = d)$. Consider$f \circ g = f(g(x)) = f(c) = d = f(x)$. Thus$f \circ g = f$. Thus$(f,g) \in R$, or$fRg$. (g) Proof for largest element: Suppose$[l]_S \in \mathcal F / S$is set of all one-to-one functions. Thus$l \in [l]_S$and$l$is one-to-one. Now to prove$[l]_S$is the largest element, if we prove$\forall [f]_S \in \mathcal F / S([f]_S T [l]_S)$. Since it is given that$[f]_S T [g]_S$iff$f R g$, it follows that we need to prove$f R l$. Now from part(c) of this solution, we have$(f,i_{\mathbb R}) \in R$, or there exist a function$h$such that$f = h \circ i_{\mathbb R}$. Also since$l$is one-to-one, then form part(e) of the solution, there exist a function$k$such that$i_{\mathbb R} = k \circ l$. Thus we have$f = h \circ i_{\mathbb R} = h \circ k \circ l = m \circ l$, where$m = h \circ k$. Thus$f R l$. It follows that$[f]_S T [l]_S$. Since$[f]_S$is arbitrary, it follows that$[l]_S$is the largest element of$\mathcal F / S$in the partial order$T$. Proof for smallest element: Suppose$[s]_S \in \mathcal F / S$is set of all constant functions. Thus$s \in [s]_S$and$s$is a contant function. Now to prove$[s]_S$is the smallest element, if we prove$\forall [f]_S \in \mathcal F / S([s]_S T [f]_S)$. Since it is given that$[f]_S T [g]_S$iff$f R g$, it follows that we need to prove$s R f$. Since$s$is contant function, thus using part(e) of this solution, it follows that$s R f$. Thus$[f]_S T [s]_S$. Since$[f]_S$is arbitrary, it follows that$[s]_S$is the smallest element of$\mathcal F / S$in the partial order$T\$.